Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993
PART 12 - DUTIES OF TRUSTEES AND INVESTMENT MANAGERS OF SUPERANNUATION ENTITIES
SECTION 101 DISPUTE RESOLUTION SYSTEMS
101(1)
Each trustee of a regulated superannuation fund other than a self managed superannuation fund or of an exempt public sector superannuation scheme that has elected to join the AFCA scheme, or of an approved deposit fund:
(a)
must be a member of the AFCA scheme; and(b) must have an internal dispute resolution procedure that complies with the standards, and requirements, mentioned in subparagraph 912A(2)(a)(i) of the Corporations Act 2001 in relation to financial services licensees; and
(c)
must give to ASIC the same information as the trustee would be required to give under subparagraph 912A(1)(g)(ii) of the Corporations Act 2001 if the trustee were a financial services licensee; and(d)
must ensure that written reasons are given, in accordance with requirements specified under subsection (1B) of this section, for any decision of the trustee (or failure by the trustee to make a decision) relating to a complaint.Note:
Part 7.10A of the Corporations Act 2001 deals with situations where complaints are not resolved by the trustee.
[ CCH Note: Legislative instruments have prescribed the standards and requirements for the purpose of s 101(1)(b) and the requirements relating to written reasons as mentioned in s 101(1)(d) . See the CCH Note under s 101(1B) .]
[ CCH Note: ASIC Corporations (Internal Dispute Resolution Data Reporting) Instrument 2022/205 , as amended (www.legislation.gov.au/Series/F2022L00430), has been made for the purpose of s 101(1)(c) , effective 1 April 2022. This instrument will be repealed on 1 April 2027.]
101(1A)
However, paragraphs (1)(a) to (c) do not apply to a trustee if the trustee is required under the Corporations Act 2001 to have a dispute resolution system complying with subsection 912A(2) or 1017G(2) of that Act.
101(1B)
ASIC may, by legislative instrument, specify for the purposes of paragraph (1)(d) any or all of the following:
(a) the persons who must be given written reasons;
(b) the matters that must be included in those reasons;
(c) the times by which those reasons must be given;
(d) the circumstances that constitute a failure to make a decision.
[ CCH Note: ASIC Corporations, Credit and Superannuation (Internal Dispute Resolution) Instrument 2020/98 (F2020L00962), as amended by ASIC Corporations, Credit and Superannuation (Amendment) Instrument 2021/753 (F2021L01343), provides as below: The instruments apply in relation to a complaint received on or after 5 October 2021 by a financial firm.
]
PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
4 Definitions
4
In this instrument:
…
complaint
has the meaning given by paragraphs 27 - 32 of Regulatory Guide 271.
…
financial firm
means:
(a) a financial services licensee;
(b) a person to whom section 1017G of the Corporations Act applies;
(c) a credit licensee;
(d) an unlicensed carried over instrument lender;
(e) a trustee of a regulated superannuation fund or of an approved deposit fund;
(f) an RSA provider.financial services licensee
means a person who holds an Australian financial services licence.
…
Regulatory Guide 271
means ASIC Regulatory Guide 271 Internal Dispute Resolution as published on 2 September 2021.
…
RSA provider
has the same meaning as in the RSA Act.
…
RSA Act
means the Retirement Savings Account Act 1997 .
PART 2 - STANDARDS AND REQUIREMENTS
5 Standards and requirements for internal dispute resolution procedures
5(1)
ASIC makes and approves the standards and requirements mentioned in the following paragraphs and tables of Regulatory Guide 271:
(a) in " Definition of complaint " :
(i) paragraphs 27 - 29 (including the note);
(ii) paragraph 32 (including the notes);
(b) in " Definition of complainant " :
(i) paragraph 39 (including the note);
(ii) paragraphs 41 and 42;
(c) in " Outsourcing IDR processes " :
(i) paragraph 48;
(d) in " What an IDR response must contain " :
(i) paragraphs 53 (including the notes) and 54;
(e) in " Maximum timeframes for an IDR response " :
(i) paragraphs 56 - 60 and Table 2;
(ii) paragraphs 64 - 66 (including the notes) and paragraph 69;
(iii) paragraph 71;
(iv) paragraph 75;
(v) paragraphs 76 - 78;
(vi) paragraphs 79;
(vii) paragraphs 81 - 85 (including the notes);
(viii) paragraphs 86, 89, 92 and 93;
(f) in " The role of customer advocates " :
(i) paragraphs 109 and 110 (including Note 1);
(g) in " Links between the IDR process and AFCA " :
(i) paragraphs 111 and 112;
(h) in " How to manage systemic issues " :
(i) paragraphs 118 - 120 (including the note);
(j) in " Enabling complaints " :
(i) paragraph 134;
(ii) paragraph 141;
(k) in " Resourcing " :
(i) paragraphs 142 and 143;
(ii) paragraphs 146 and 147;
(l) in " Responsiveness " :
(i) paragraphs 163 and 165;
(m) in " Policy and procedures " :
(i) paragraph 172;
(n) in " Data collection, analysis and internal reporting " :
(i) paragraph 179 and 183.
5(2)
A word or expression that is defined in Regulatory Guide 271 has the same meaning for the purposes of the paragraphs and tables of Regulatory Guide 271 mentioned in subsection (1).
6 Requirements relating to written reasons
6(1)
ASIC specifies the requirements mentioned in subsection (2) in relation to written reasons:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 47(1)(d) of the RSA Act - for any decision of the RSA provider (or failure by the RSA provider to make a decision) relating to a complaint; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph 101(1)(d) of the SIS Act - for any decision of a trustee of a regulated superannuation fund other than a self managed superannuation fund or of an approved deposit fund (or failure by the trustee to make a decision) relating to a complaint.
6(2)
ASIC specifies the requirements mentioned in the following paragraphs of Regulatory Guide 271:
(a) in " What an IDR response must contain " :
(i) paragraphs 53 (including the notes) and 54;
(b) in " Maximum timeframes for an IDR response " :
(i) paragraphs 56 - 60 and Table 2;
(ii) paragraphs 64 - 66 (including the notes) and paragraph 69;
(iii) paragraph 75;
(iv) paragraph 79;
(v) paragraphs 81 - 85 (including the notes).
6(3)
A word or expression that is defined in Regulatory Guide 271 has the same meaning for the purposes of the paragraphs of Regulatory Guide 271 mentioned in subsection (2).
101(2)
A person who intentionally or recklessly contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence punishable on conviction by a fine not exceeding 100 penalty units.
Note:
Chapter 2 of the Criminal Code sets out the general principles of criminal responsibility.
101(3)
(Repealed by No 76 of 2023)
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